>Is it true that the magnitude response remains same but only 
>the phase response is different, between convolution and 
>correlation?
>
>Bharat
>

Hi Bharat,
Yes, this is true.  Also, the phases are simply opposite in sign.  Here's
a link that expands on this, describing how to use this property to create
zero phase IIR filters.   
Regards,
Steve

http://www.dspguide.com/ch19/4.htm

bharat pathak wrote:
> Is it true that the magnitude response remains same but only
> the phase response is different, between convolution and
> correlation?
>
> Bharat

Maybe you could define your terms a little better.

Magnitude response refers to a system / filter / etc.  Ditto phase response.

Convolution is an operation.
Correlation is an operation.

Sure, the operation of a system on a signal is a convolution.  But, the 
system isn't a convolution as such.

I think you mean this:
"Is it true that the magnitude response of a system remains the same and the 
phase response is different IF we reverse the system response in time?"

Fred 

On Oct 3, 9:10&#4294967295;am, "bharat pathak" <bha...@arithos.com> wrote:
> Is it true that the magnitude response remains same but only
> the phase response is different, between convolution and
> correlation?
>
> Bharat

Consider a PN sequence. If you convolve it with itself you don't get a
peak. If you correlate it with itself, you do get a peak.

John

On 3 Okt, 15:10, "bharat pathak" <bha...@arithos.com> wrote:
> Is it true that the magnitude response remains same but only
> the phase response is different, between convolution and
> correlation?

Why not calculate the FTs of the two fomulas and compare?

Rune

Is it true that the magnitude response remains same but only 
the phase response is different, between convolution and 
correlation?

Bharat