Reply by Clay S. Turner February 18, 20062006-02-18
<magoldfish@gmail.com> wrote in message 
news:1140115903.996500.291670@g43g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...
> > fizteh89 wrote: >> You don't get any meaningful results by just computing analytic signal >> and estimating instantaneous frequncy. > I agree with this statement for complex signals like speech, but what > about for simple fm signals/chirps? Shouldn't the IF give me the > modulating signal? This is the kind of information I am seeking. >>
Yes, ideal FM demodulation is the process of finding the instantaneous frequency. Practically it is not usually done by Hilbert transforms, but it can be. I've done it before. It is easier to use a pair of all pass filters whose phase response differ by 90 degrees. But once your signal has been either analytically extended via Hilbert transforms or split into orthogonal signals, the instantaneous calculation is the same. Namely (I dQ - Q dI) / (I^2 + Q^2) or one of its suitable approximations.
> Has anyone actually used the Hilbert transform to estimate the IF of an > AM-FM signal + noise? What do you practically do with the negative > frequencies it returns? >
The interpretation depends on your application. Typically with FM, the carrier is modulated to frequencies above and below nominal. So in this case negative just means the instantaneous frequency is below your nominal carrier. Quite often in DSP based radios the signal is mixed down to nearly baseband before sampling. I.e., let's say you have an RF signal whose bandwidth is 30 kHz, the radio then can be made to mix the channel's center frequency to say 25kHz and then the sampling may be done at 100kHz. So spectrally your signal now occupies 25+-15 = 10 to 40 kHz. In a case like this the instantaneous frequency varies about 25 kHz. Certainly with noise, your calculation may end up with spikes and such. But these can be easily filtered since the transmitted signal likely had a slew rate limit filter going into the modulator. Sometimes a median filter works well here. If you mixed the signal all of the way down to base band, you may encounter difficulties with the 90 degree phase splitting. Notice in the above scenario, I allowed for 10 kHz guard bands on both sides of the signal. Since in this case the discrete Hilbert transform doesn't have to function below 10kHz (0.1 of the sampling rate) it is actually realizable for low cost. Some radios do the phase splitting in hardware and use two samplers - others use a single sampler and use a DSP to split the signal. There are trade offs with each method. I.e., amplitude matching overall and while in compression, phase errors, and computational overhead. IHTH, Clay S. Turner
Reply by February 16, 20062006-02-16
Stan Pawlukiewicz <spam@spam.mitre.org> writes:

> People who live in Hartford don't spell that way! ;)
Damn Yankees! :-) -- "And he sees the vision splendid of the sunlit plains extended And at night the wondrous glory of the everlasting stars."
Reply by robert bristow-johnson February 16, 20062006-02-16
in article 1140116271.124235.289870@o13g2000cwo.googlegroups.com,
magoldfish@gmail.com at magoldfish@gmail.com wrote on 02/16/2006 13:57:

>> if you visualize that analytic signal as a function of time, it might look >> like a sorta cork-screw wrapping around the t-axis. the rate that it wraps >> around is the instantaneous frequency. if the instantaneous frequency >> changes signs, that means that the parametric curve that represents the >> analytic signal has stopped wrapping in one direction or sense (say, >> counter-clockwise) and has begun wrapping in the other direction (now >> clockwise). >> >> with only words that's about the only way i can illustrate it.
> Thanks-- makes perfect sense. Guess I missed the phasor > interpretation. > > Are phase-direction reversals usually signifcant in terms of signal > properties (e.g., change-points in the signal), or just artifacts of > the algorithm? Does it make sense to ignore the direction of the > phasor rotation, and just look at the absolute value of the IF?
i dunno. i guess it depends on whatever it is that you're doing. some applications of the phase vocoder sorta ignore phase and just have it continue on from the phase of an earlier frame. but in using the HT to identify the instantaneous frequency is not the same. usually this analytic signal thing is used for signals that are "bandpass" signals. the analytic signal: a(t) = x(t) + j*Hilbert{x(t)} = r(t) * exp(j*theta(t)) where r(t) = |a(t)| >= 0 theta(t) = arg{a(t)} + k(t)*2*pi where k(t) always takes on integer values and is used to "unwrap" theta(t) from its principal value so as to minimize discontinuities. the instantaneous frequency f(t) (in Hz) is f(t) = 1/(2*pi) * (d/dt)theta(t) = 1/(2*pi) * theta'(t) now, in communications, sometimes a linear trend in theta(t) can be noted: f(t) = 1/(2*pi) * theta'(t) = f0 + f_delta(t) where f_delta(t) = f(t) - f0 (read "f sub delta") and t theta(t) = integral{ 2*pi*f(u) du} -inf t = 2*pi*f0*t + integral{2*pi*f_delta(u) du} -inf = 2*pi*f0*t + theta_delta(t) (read "theta sub delta") where f_delta(t) = 1/(2*pi) * (d/dt)theta_delta(t) and then we see that a(t) = r(t)*exp(j*theta(t)) = (r(t)*exp(j*theta_delta(t))) * exp(j*2*pi*f0*t) so it looks like that the complex "baseband" signal, r(t)*exp(j*theta_delta(t)) which may not have symmetrical spectrum about f=0 (because it is not necessarily real) but, if f0 is properly chosen (by least square fitting a strait line to theta(t)), it should have spectrum approximately equally in quantity on both sides of DC (f=0). this baseband signal is getting modulated up (or the spectrum "bumped up") to be centered around f0 instead of 0. anyway, in this case i would never expect theta(t) to turn around and wrap around the t-axis in the other direction. it is heavily biased by f0 to wrap only in the positive direction or sense. but the "baseband" signal, r(t)*exp(j*theta_delta(t)), could go either way. if the instantaneous frequency of x(t) is less than f0, then the instantaneous frequency of the baseband signal is negative. i dunno what to do with this info. but it's there to possibly help you interpret data. -- r b-j rbj@audioimagination.com "Imagination is more important than knowledge."
Reply by February 16, 20062006-02-16
> if you visualize that analytic signal as a function of time, it might look > like a sorta cork-screw wrapping around the t-axis. the rate that it wraps > around is the instantaneous frequency. if the instantaneous frequency > changes signs, that means that the parametric curve that represents the > analytic signal has stopped wrapping in one direction or sense (say, > counter-clockwise) and has begun wrapping in the other direction (now > clockwise). > > with only words that's about the only way i can illustrate it.
Thanks-- makes perfect sense. Guess I missed the phasor interpretation. Are phase-direction reversals usually signifcant in terms of signal properties (e.g., change-points in the signal), or just artifacts of the algorithm? Does it make sense to ignore the direction of the phasor rotation, and just look at the absolute value of the IF? Marcus
Reply by February 16, 20062006-02-16
For a zero-mean FM signal I expect it to return the modulating
function.

Marcus

Reply by February 16, 20062006-02-16
fizteh89 wrote:
> You don't get any meaningful results by just computing analytic signal > and estimating instantaneous frequncy.
I agree with this statement for complex signals like speech, but what about for simple fm signals/chirps? Shouldn't the IF give me the modulating signal? This is the kind of information I am seeking.
> The whole methodology is called Hilbert-Huang Transform and it can be
Thanks for the pointer. Already used the HHT-- seems very nice-- but for the simple problem I am considering I think it is overkill: the signal I am analyzing is not the sum of many AM-FM components, merely a single AM-FM component. Again, I expected the direct application of the Hilbert transform + IA/IF estimation to be effective. Has anyone actually used the Hilbert transform to estimate the IF of an AM-FM signal + noise? What do you practically do with the negative frequencies it returns?
Reply by Stan Pawlukiewicz February 16, 20062006-02-16
Peter K. wrote:
> "dbell" <dbell@niitek.com> writes: > > >>What do you expect the instantaneous frequency of a speech signal to be >>indicative of? > > > Coloured noise?
People who live in Hartford don't spell that way! ;)
>
Reply by Peter K. February 16, 20062006-02-16
dbell wrote:

> I can think of easier ways to generate colored noise.
Me too. :-)
Reply by dbell February 15, 20062006-02-15
I can think of easier ways to generate colored noise.

Dirk

Peter K. wrote:
> "dbell" <dbell@niitek.com> writes: > > > What do you expect the instantaneous frequency of a speech signal to be > > indicative of? > > Coloured noise? > > -- > "And he sees the vision splendid > of the sunlit plains extended > And at night the wondrous glory of the everlasting stars."
Reply by fizteh89 February 15, 20062006-02-15
You don't get any meaningful results by just computing analytic signal
and estimating instantaneous frequncy.

To get something meaningful you might have to do empirical mode
decomposition first, then compute analytic signal and instantaneous
frequency of each mode and finally arrive at the so called Hilbert
spectrum.

The whole methodology is called Hilbert-Huang Transform and it can be
found at
http://www.fuentek.com/technologies/hht.htm