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Difference in transforms in psychoacoustic model

Started by Unknown January 14, 2009
Can anyone shortly descripe what the difference in using FFT as
opposed to MDCT for transforming between time- and frequencydomain? Is
there one or two large pros in using one over the other. I.e. the
MPEG-1 Psychoacoustic Model-1 uses a FFT (with a complex expontial
series) to perform the transformation, but why not use purely MDCT for
this?