Matt Timmermans wrote:> "Robert E. Beaudoin" <reb@sens.com> wrote in message > news:42c6a$40369899$44a72252$11987@msgid.meganewsservers.com... >[snip]>>I wonder just which functions on [-1, 1] have extensions in L^2(R) >>whose Fourier transforms are zero outside [-W, W] (for a given W). >>I also wonder if there is a bound (for W fixed, of course) on the >>number of zero-crossings in [-1, 1] such a function can have; that >>would address the OP's OQ (original question). My guess is that >>there is, but I need to think about this some more.... > > > We can certainly rule out a bound on the number of zero crossings, given > that the Nth PSWF *has* N zeros in the interval. Given how fast the > concentrations fall off for successive PSWFs, though, I think you will fail > to get convergence on L^2(R) for a lot of interesting functions -- even > smooth ones. > >The sound you hear is me smacking my head; how'd I miss that? Thanks for pointing it out and settling the OP's OQ. Definitely more than smoothness is required of the restriction of a bandlimited function to [-1, 1] (say), as every bandlimited function has an extension to an entire function. The Paley-Wiener theorem even characterizes which entire functions can arise this way (at least for bandlimited functions with smooth spectra; I think there are extensions of the theorem that apply when the spectrum is not smooth, too) which sorta tells you which functions on [-1, 1] have bandlimited extensions (the ones with entire extensions satisfying the Paley-Wiener bounds, of course) but this is a pretty opaque characterization. Maybe there is some way to simplify it (or maybe not). Well, I hope that was of interest. Gotta go smack my head some more.... Bob Beaudoin
Band limited function zero crossings, how many?
Started by ●February 18, 2004
Reply by ●February 22, 20042004-02-22
Reply by ●February 22, 20042004-02-22
Fred Marshall wrote: ...> (I'm not sure everyone knows what "complete" means.....)From the paper Matt posted, I gather it means what we in German refer to as "dicht" (dense): Set A is "dicht" in set B, if for all b \in B there exists a sequence a_i \in A, such that a_i -> b, i-> \infty. (Note: you need a metric space M, with A \subset B \subset M to define what convergence means). For example, the rational numbers are "dicht" in the real numbers. Is that what "complete" means?> > Fred
Reply by ●February 24, 20042004-02-24
I wrote:> Fred Marshall wrote: > ... > > (I'm not sure everyone knows what "complete" means.....) > > From the paper Matt posted, I gather it means what we in German refer > to as "dicht" (dense): > > Set A is "dicht" in set B, if for all b \in B there exists a sequence > a_i \in A, such that a_i -> b, i-> \infty. (Note: you need a metric > space M, with A \subset B \subset M to define what convergence means). > > For example, the rational numbers are "dicht" in the real numbers. > > Is that what "complete" means?No one answered, so I looked it up. It's close to what I thought, but the term "complete" is appearantly reserved for function spaces, and refers specifically to convergence to piecewise continuous functions in the L2-norm: http://mathworld.wolfram.com/CompleteOrthogonalSystem.html Piecewise continuous functions are "dicht" in the set of measurable functions (and thus L2-functions), so this is a very broad class of functions. Regards, Andor






