I've been racking my brain on this one the last couple of days. So, group delay is defined as the derivative of phase with respect to frequency. My simple question is: why? We would all agree that the time delay of a sinusoid induced by a change in phase (phase delay) is equal to the ratio of the change in phase to the frequency. Also, for a linear phase response, the derivative would be equal to the ratio. Both phase delay and group delay would be constant. I have been searching for a while now and haven't found anything beyond 'it can be shown that...' In Richard Lyons' book, he simply uses 'is defined as...' Could someone provide, or refer me to, a derivation showing the relationship between an amplitude modulated sinusoid and group delay? Cheers, -Dan
Definition of Group (Envelope) Delay
Started by ●November 26, 2012
Reply by ●November 26, 20122012-11-26
"dszabo" <62466@dsprelated> writes:> I've been racking my brain on this one the last couple of days. So, group > delay is defined as the derivative of phase with respect to frequency. > > My simple question is: why? > > We would all agree that the time delay of a sinusoid induced by a change in > phase (phase delay) is equal to the ratio of the change in phase to the > frequency. > > Also, for a linear phase response, the derivative would be equal to the > ratio. Both phase delay and group delay would be constant. > > I have been searching for a while now and haven't found anything beyond 'it > can be shown that...' In Richard Lyons' book, he simply uses 'is defined > as...' > > Could someone provide, or refer me to, a derivation showing the > relationship between an amplitude modulated sinusoid and group delay? > > Cheers, > -DanDan, First of all, group delay is characteristic of a system, not a signal. Thus you wouldn't measure the group delay of "an amplitude modulated sinusoid." Put simply, group delay is a measure of the time through the system as a function of frequency. If it is a linear-phase system, the delay through the system is constant and so is the group delay. -- Randy Yates Digital Signal Labs http://www.digitalsignallabs.com
Reply by ●November 26, 20122012-11-26
On 11/26/12 5:27 PM, dszabo wrote:> I've been racking my brain on this one the last couple of days. So, group > delay is defined as the derivative of phase with respect to frequency. > > My simple question is: why? >maybe take a look at: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Group_delay_and_phase_delay it sets up the problem, but doesn't do the math to prove the result (but i think it provides all of the conditions so that it's a matter of cranking through the math). if transfer function, H(s), is evaluated at s = j omega H(j omega) = |H(j omega)| e^(j phi(omega) ) and the input signal is x(t) = A(t) cos(omega t) and A(t) varies slowly enough to be deemed an "envelope", then the output is virtually y(t) = |H(j omega)| A(t - T_g) cos( omega (t - t_phi) ) the *envelope* is delayed by T_g which approaches in the limit T_g = -phi'(omega)> We would all agree that the time delay of a sinusoid induced by a change in > phase (phase delay) is equal to the ratio of the change in phase to the > frequency.well, *phase* delay is T_phi = -phi(omega)/omega just crank through the math. apply limits where appropriate.> Also, for a linear phase response, the derivative would be equal to the > ratio. Both phase delay and group delay would be constant.yes, that's the case. and they gotta be the same constant. in fact, even for non-linear phase, it's still the case that the phase delay and group delay are equal to the same value at DC. -- r b-j rbj@audioimagination.com "Imagination is more important than knowledge."
Reply by ●November 26, 20122012-11-26
Thanks for the reply! This wikipedia article did a nice job of summarizing the information I found from google: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Group_delay_and_phase_delay You'll see that for AM signals convolved with a tranfer finction, h(t), that the amplitude, A(t), and the carrier, cos(omega*t+theta) are time shifted by tao-sub-g (the group delay) and tau-sub-phi (the phase delay). It then goes on to claim that it can be shown that these values are equal to the inverse of the derivative of the phase with respect to frequency, and the ratio of the phase with respect to frequency, respectively. I would like to see the derivation that proves that the amplitude signal would be time shifted by the derivative of the phase with respect to frequency. Cheers, -Dan
Reply by ●November 26, 20122012-11-26
>if transfer function, H(s), is evaluated at s = j omega > > H(j omega) = |H(j omega)| e^(j phi(omega) ) > >and the input signal is > > x(t) = A(t) cos(omega t) > >and A(t) varies slowly enough to be deemed an "envelope", then the >output is virtually > > y(t) = |H(j omega)| A(t - T_g) cos( omega (t - t_phi) ) > >the *envelope* is delayed by T_g which approaches in the limit > > T_g = -phi'(omega)Now we're getting to the heart of it! OK, so I'm with you for evaluating H at j omega. And I know that there is a laplace transform relationship between the e^(s*tao) and a dirac delta shifted in time. SO, A multiply in the s-domain would correspond to a convolution in time domain, which would shift the input signal by tao. HOWEVER, this does not explain why my envelope and carrier functions get shifted by different amounts. Thoughts? Cheers, -Dan
Reply by ●November 26, 20122012-11-26
dszabo <62466@dsprelated> wrote:> I've been racking my brain on this one the last couple of days. So, group > delay is defined as the derivative of phase with respect to frequency.> My simple question is: why?> We would all agree that the time delay of a sinusoid induced by a change in > phase (phase delay) is equal to the ratio of the change in phase to the > frequency.I first learned it in terms of phase and group velocity, where phase velocity is w/k, and group velocity dw/dk. (w, omega is angular frequency, usually in radians per second, and k is the wave vector or wave number, in, usually, inverse meters.) That is, the wave equation will have terms in (kx-wt) and (kx+wt). In a system that is close to linear, such as light through a dielectric, phase velocity is the velocity of phases (crests and valleys) in the EM wave, group velocity of changes in the amplitude, or envelope. If you send information by modulating the wave, such as AM on a light wave carrier, the information travels at the group velocity. Now, divide all that by l (length) and you get phase and group delay.> Also, for a linear phase response, the derivative would be equal to the > ratio. Both phase delay and group delay would be constant.Group delay works when it is linear, or close to linear. That is, when the second derivative is small such that it can be ignored in the Taylor series expansion. Near resonance, that isn't true, especially at places where the group velocity (and delay) go negative.> I have been searching for a while now and haven't found anything beyond 'it > can be shown that...' In Richard Lyons' book, he simply uses 'is defined > as...'> Could someone provide, or refer me to, a derivation showing the > relationship between an amplitude modulated sinusoid and group delay?Group and phase velocity should be in some not too far from introductory physics books. They work well for many dielectrics which are just close enough to linear over the interesting range of frequencies. -- glen
Reply by ●November 26, 20122012-11-26
On 11/26/12 6:50 PM, dszabo wrote:>> if transfer function, H(s), is evaluated at s = j omega >> >> H(j omega) = |H(j omega)| e^(j phi(omega) ) >> >> and the input signal is >> >> x(t) = A(t) cos(omega t) >> >> and A(t) varies slowly enough to be deemed an "envelope", then the >> output is virtually >> >> y(t) = |H(j omega)| A(t - T_g) cos( omega (t - t_phi) ) >> >> the *envelope* is delayed by T_g which approaches in the limit >> >> T_g = -phi'(omega) > > > Now we're getting to the heart of it! > > OK, so I'm with you for evaluating H at j omega. And I know that there is > a laplace transform relationship between the e^(s*tao) and a dirac delta > shifted in time. > > SO, A multiply in the s-domain would correspond to a convolution in time > domain, which would shift the input signal by tao. HOWEVER, this does not > explain why my envelope and carrier functions get shifted by different > amounts. > > Thoughts?i'm gonna change the notation a little. but not much. this is a special input signal, not a totally general signal. you have a bandlimited (but otherwise general) envelope, a(t), and it is modulating a sinusoid resulting in input x(t) = a(t) cos(w0 t) = a(t) 1/2 ( e^(j w0 t) + e^(-j w0 t) ) the phase of the input sinusoid (or "co"sinusoid) can be set to zero by how t is defined. the fourier transform (using angular frequency) of the above is X(jw) = 1/2 ( A(j(w+w0)) + A(j(w-w0)) ) where A(jw) is the F.T. of a(t). if H(s) is the transfer function, the F.T. of the output is Y(jw) = H(jw) X(jw) the transfer function H(jw) is, in polar form H(jw) = |H(jw)| e^(j phi(w)) because a(t) is slowly varying (it's an envelope), meaning *bandlimited* to much less than w0. that means that A(jw) = 0 except when |w| << w0 now here is where the approximation is made for H(jw) at frequencies w that are in the neighborhood of w0, that is |w-w0| << w0 : H(jw) = |H(j w0)| e^( j (phi(w0) + phi'(w0)(w-w0)) ) and similarly for frequencies around -w0, or |w+w0| << w0 . phi'(w0) is the derivative of phi(w) evaluated at w = w0. now Dan, can you take it from there (that is figger out what y(t), the inverse F.T. of Y(jw), is) ? the output y(t) you should be looking for is y(t) = |H(j w0)| a(t - T_g(w0)) cos(w0 (t - T_phi(w0))) where T_phi(w) = -phi(w)/w and T_g(w) = -phi'(w) or (d/dw)phi(w) -- r b-j rbj@audioimagination.com "Imagination is more important than knowledge."
Reply by ●November 27, 20122012-11-27
Hmm, I've started working through the derivation, and hope to finish it on my lunch break. It looks like the two side bands (A(j(w+w0)) and A(j(w-w0))) are going to have a phase shift in common, and a phase shift difference. These will result in the different group/phase delays. I would also assume that h(t) has to be real, meaning that: |H(jw0)| = |H(-jw0)| phi(-w0) = -phi(w0) phi'(-w0) = phi'(w0) Thanks so much for the help. Cheers, -Dan
Reply by ●November 27, 20122012-11-27
Okay, here goes.
First, the approximation of the transfer function would be
H(j(-w0)) = |H(jw0)| e^j(-phi(w0) + phi'(w0)(w+w0))
This is from the assumptions I made in my previous post.
Y(jw) has two non-zero regions, near +w0 and -w0.
Near +w0:
A(j(w+w0)) = 0
Near -w0:
A(j(w-w0)) = 0
So:
Y(jw) = |H(jw0)|*(1/2)*( (e^j(phi(w0) + phi'(w0)(w-w0))) * A(j(w-w0))
)
*( (e^j(-phi(w0)+ phi'(w0)(w+w0))) * A(j(w+w0))
)
The phi'() terms cause an equal phase shift in the A() about +w0 and -w0,
respectively. This is equivalent to shifting the orginial spectrum of A
before modulation by -phi'(w0).
Lets call this new group delay signal b(t)
b(t) = A(t-tao_g)
B(jw) = A(jw)e^j(-(-phi'(w0))*w)
Plugging back into Y(jw):
Y(jw) = |H(jw0)|*(1/2)*( ( (e^j(phi(w0))) * B(j(w-w0)) )
+ ( (e^j(-phi(w0))) * B(j(w+w0)) ) )
From the relationship used eariler:
y(t) = |H(jw0)|*b(t)*(1/2)*( (e^j(phi(w0))) * (e^j*w0*t)
+ (e^j(-phi(w0))) * (e^-j*w0*t) )
y(t) = |H(jw0)|*b(t)*(1/2)*( e^ j(w0*t+phi(w0)))
+ e^-j(w0*t+phi(w0))) )
Or,
y(t) = |H(jw0)|*b(t)*cos(w0*t + phi(w0))
Finally, plug in a() and rearrange to introduce the phase delay term:
y(t) = |H(jw0)| * a(t-tao_g) * cos(w0(t-tao_phi))
Where,
tao_g = -d/dw phi(w0)
tao_phi = -phi(w0)/w0
Thanks for all the help Robert!
Cheers,
-Dan
Reply by ●November 27, 20122012-11-27
On 11/27/12 3:45 PM, dszabo wrote:> Okay, here goes. > > First, the approximation of the transfer function would be > > H(j(-w0)) = |H(jw0)| e^j(-phi(w0) + phi'(w0)(w+w0)) > > This is from the assumptions I made in my previous post. > > Y(jw) has two non-zero regions, near +w0 and -w0. > > Near +w0: > A(j(w+w0)) = 0 > > Near -w0: > A(j(w-w0)) = 0 > > So: > > Y(jw) = |H(jw0)|*(1/2)*( (e^j(phi(w0) + phi'(w0)(w-w0))) * A(j(w-w0)) ) > *( (e^j(-phi(w0)+ phi'(w0)(w+w0))) * A(j(w+w0)) ) > > The phi'() terms cause an equal phase shift in the A() about +w0 and -w0, > respectively. This is equivalent to shifting the original spectrum of A > before modulation by -phi'(w0). > > Lets call this new group delay signal b(t) > > b(t) = A(t-tao_g) > B(jw) = A(jw)e^j(-(-phi'(w0))*w) > > Plugging back into Y(jw): > > Y(jw) = |H(jw0)|*(1/2)*( ( (e^j(phi(w0))) * B(j(w-w0)) ) > + ( (e^j(-phi(w0))) * B(j(w+w0)) ) ) > > From the relationship used eariler: > > y(t) = |H(jw0)|*b(t)*(1/2)*( (e^j(phi(w0))) * (e^j*w0*t) > + (e^j(-phi(w0))) * (e^-j*w0*t) ) > > y(t) = |H(jw0)|*b(t)*(1/2)*( e^ j(w0*t+phi(w0))) > + e^-j(w0*t+phi(w0))) ) > > Or, > > y(t) = |H(jw0)|*b(t)*cos(w0*t + phi(w0)) > > Finally, plug in a() and rearrange to introduce the phase delay term: > > y(t) = |H(jw0)| * a(t-tao_g) * cos(w0(t-tao_phi)) > > Where, > tao_g = -d/dw phi(w0) > tao_phi = -phi(w0)/w0 > > > Thanks for all the help Robert!you're welcome. guess what you could do to spread the joy: you could fix up that page at Wikipedia (anyone can edit, even anonymously) and add the rest of the derivation. i don't have the time to do it now and also i have been officially banned from editing wikipedia (hasn't stopped me from editing anonymously). anyway, just a thought. -- r b-j rbj@audioimagination.com "Imagination is more important than knowledge."






