# FFT zero analyzing pink noise

Started by August 8, 2019
```Im doing the pink noise FFT. I calculate the frequency of 1kHz by adding the contribution of the corresponding bins. Is it possible that sometimes the result is zero?
Thanks.
```
```On Thursday, August 8, 2019 at 11:16:29 AM UTC-4, Richard wrote:
> Im doing the pink noise FFT. I calculate the frequency of 1kHz by adding the contribution of the corresponding bins. Is it possible that sometimes the result is zero?
> Thanks.

I would think it is unlikely.  In theory pink noise contains all frequencies, but it depends on how your data is generated if there is much likelihood of their being zero amplitude at any given time.

--

Rick C.

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```
```Am 08.08.19 um 17:16 schrieb Richard:
> Im doing the pink noise FFT. I calculate the frequency of 1kHz by adding the contribution of the corresponding bins.

1 kHz should be exactly *1* bin. So basically you doing some kind of
band pass.

> Is it possible that sometimes the result is zero?

The energy density of exactly 1 kHz is always 0 in pink noise. You need
to take an interval to get finite energy.

And well, due to noise in the measurement, even a value of 0 might be
possible. Although this is *extremely unlikely* as long as you operate
with reasonable precision.

It might be helpful if you let us know what you /really/ intend to
calculate.

Marcel
```