Im doing the pink noise FFT. I calculate the frequency of 1kHz by adding the contribution of the corresponding bins. Is it possible that sometimes the result is zero? Thanks.

# FFT zero analyzing pink noise

Started by ●August 8, 2019

Reply by ●August 8, 20192019-08-08

On Thursday, August 8, 2019 at 11:16:29 AM UTC-4, Richard wrote:> Im doing the pink noise FFT. I calculate the frequency of 1kHz by adding the contribution of the corresponding bins. Is it possible that sometimes the result is zero? > Thanks.I would think it is unlikely. In theory pink noise contains all frequencies, but it depends on how your data is generated if there is much likelihood of their being zero amplitude at any given time. -- Rick C. - Get 1,000 miles of free Supercharging - Tesla referral code - https://ts.la/richard11209

Reply by ●August 12, 20192019-08-12

Am 08.08.19 um 17:16 schrieb Richard:> Im doing the pink noise FFT. I calculate the frequency of 1kHz by adding the contribution of the corresponding bins.1 kHz should be exactly *1* bin. So basically you doing some kind of band pass.> Is it possible that sometimes the result is zero?The energy density of exactly 1 kHz is always 0 in pink noise. You need to take an interval to get finite energy. And well, due to noise in the measurement, even a value of 0 might be possible. Although this is *extremely unlikely* as long as you operate with reasonable precision. It might be helpful if you let us know what you /really/ intend to calculate. Marcel