Reply by Liz August 3, 20042004-08-03
israel@math.ubc.ca (Robert Israel) wrote in message news:<cemnk7$btr$1@nntp.itservices.ubc.ca>...
> In article <9dec5a83.0408021139.4da826f8@posting.google.com>, > Liz <robert.w.adams@verizon.net> wrote: > >Suppose I have a signal x(t) with Fourier Transform X(jw). It is known > >that if one scales the time axis by a factor K, then the frequency > >axis is scaled by 1/K. I am curious about non-linear scalings of the > >time axis. Is there a way to derive the Fourier Transform of > >x(exp(t)), given that one knows the Fourier Transform of x(t)?? > > With the change of variables exp(t)=s, and assuming convergence > > int_{-infinity}^infinity exp(-ikt) x(exp(t)) dt > = int_0^infinity s^(-ik-1) x(s) ds > > I'd like to write this as > > int_{-infinity}^infinity G(w) X(w) dw > > where G(w) is the Fourier transform of Heaviside(s) s^(-ik-1). > That doesn't quite work when k is real because it's too singular at s=0, > but you can either replace k by k+i epsilon or Heaviside(s) by > Heaviside(s-epsilon) where epsilon>0, and take the limit as epsilon->0. > > Robert Israel israel@math.ubc.ca > Department of Mathematics http://www.math.ubc.ca/~israel > University of British Columbia > Vancouver, BC, Canada V6T 1Z2
Interesting ... your first formula looks a lot like the Mellin Transform(Z), with the complex variable Z evaluated for imaginary values only. I wonder then if the Mellin transform of x(t) evaluated on the imaginary axis gives the same result as the Fourier Transform of x(exp(t)) ?? Regards Bob Adams
Reply by Liz August 3, 20042004-08-03
israel@math.ubc.ca (Robert Israel) wrote in message news:<cemnk7$btr$1@nntp.itservices.ubc.ca>...
> In article <9dec5a83.0408021139.4da826f8@posting.google.com>, > Liz <robert.w.adams@verizon.net> wrote: > >Suppose I have a signal x(t) with Fourier Transform X(jw). It is known > >that if one scales the time axis by a factor K, then the frequency > >axis is scaled by 1/K. I am curious about non-linear scalings of the > >time axis. Is there a way to derive the Fourier Transform of > >x(exp(t)), given that one knows the Fourier Transform of x(t)?? > > With the change of variables exp(t)=s, and assuming convergence > > int_{-infinity}^infinity exp(-ikt) x(exp(t)) dt > = int_0^infinity s^(-ik-1) x(s) ds > > I'd like to write this as > > int_{-infinity}^infinity G(w) X(w) dw > > where G(w) is the Fourier transform of Heaviside(s) s^(-ik-1). > That doesn't quite work when k is real because it's too singular at s=0, > but you can either replace k by k+i epsilon or Heaviside(s) by > Heaviside(s-epsilon) where epsilon>0, and take the limit as epsilon->0. > > Robert Israel israel@math.ubc.ca > Department of Mathematics http://www.math.ubc.ca/~israel > University of British Columbia > Vancouver, BC, Canada V6T 1Z2
Thanks! I followed OK until;
>I'd like to write this as > > int_{-infinity}^infinity G(w) X(w) dw
How did you make this step? Regards Bob Adams
Reply by Robert Israel August 2, 20042004-08-02
In article <9dec5a83.0408021139.4da826f8@posting.google.com>,
Liz <robert.w.adams@verizon.net> wrote:
>Suppose I have a signal x(t) with Fourier Transform X(jw). It is known >that if one scales the time axis by a factor K, then the frequency >axis is scaled by 1/K. I am curious about non-linear scalings of the >time axis. Is there a way to derive the Fourier Transform of >x(exp(t)), given that one knows the Fourier Transform of x(t)??
With the change of variables exp(t)=s, and assuming convergence int_{-infinity}^infinity exp(-ikt) x(exp(t)) dt = int_0^infinity s^(-ik-1) x(s) ds I'd like to write this as int_{-infinity}^infinity G(w) X(w) dw where G(w) is the Fourier transform of Heaviside(s) s^(-ik-1). That doesn't quite work when k is real because it's too singular at s=0, but you can either replace k by k+i epsilon or Heaviside(s) by Heaviside(s-epsilon) where epsilon>0, and take the limit as epsilon->0. Robert Israel israel@math.ubc.ca Department of Mathematics http://www.math.ubc.ca/~israel University of British Columbia Vancouver, BC, Canada V6T 1Z2
Reply by Stephan M. Bernsee August 2, 20042004-08-02
On 2004-08-02 21:39:41 +0200, robert.w.adams@verizon.net (Liz) said:

> Suppose I have a signal x(t) with Fourier Transform X(jw). It is known > that if one scales the time axis by a factor K, then the frequency > axis is scaled by 1/K. I am curious about non-linear scalings of the > time axis. Is there a way to derive the Fourier Transform of > x(exp(t)), given that one knows the Fourier Transform of x(t)?? > > > Bob Adams
You could use non-uniform sampling (commonly called "warping") to achieve exponential spacing. In fact this is quite common, for example to get a constant-Q behaviour out of a constant bandwidth transform. Look for the keywords "warping", "Mellin transform" or "warped Fourier transform" to get started. -- Stephan M. Bernsee http://www.dspdimension.com
Reply by Tim Wescott August 2, 20042004-08-02
Liz wrote:

> Suppose I have a signal x(t) with Fourier Transform X(jw). It is known > that if one scales the time axis by a factor K, then the frequency > axis is scaled by 1/K. I am curious about non-linear scalings of the > time axis. Is there a way to derive the Fourier Transform of > x(exp(t)), given that one knows the Fourier Transform of x(t)?? > > > Bob Adams
If I were a sadistic professor and you were an undergrad I'd reply to that by saying "hey, do you want to get a Doctorate?" I don't think there'd be a general solution to that, but I'm willing to be surprised. -- Tim Wescott Wescott Design Services http://www.wescottdesign.com
Reply by Liz August 2, 20042004-08-02
Suppose I have a signal x(t) with Fourier Transform X(jw). It is known
that if one scales the time axis by a factor K, then the frequency
axis is scaled by 1/K. I am curious about non-linear scalings of the
time axis. Is there a way to derive the Fourier Transform of
x(exp(t)), given that one knows the Fourier Transform of x(t)??


Bob Adams