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Fourier transform, convolution, and duality

Started by b83503104 December 24, 2003
Given that x(t)*h(t) <-> X(w)H(w),
can we obtain  x(t)h(t) <-> (1/2PI)X(w)*H(w) 
by using only the duality property of Fourier transform?
THanks!
b83503104 wrote:

> Given that x(t)*h(t) <-> X(w)H(w), > can we obtain x(t)h(t) <-> (1/2PI)X(w)*H(w) > by using only the duality property of Fourier transform?
First of all, you convolve with a constant: (1/2PI)X(w)*H(w) <-> x(t)h(t)(1/2PI) Given your question was: x(t)h(t) <-> DELTA(w-1/2PI)X(w)*H(w) Then maybe. If your signal satisfyes X(w) == X(w-PI/2) then yes, but then it not only a matter of duality, so the answer must be no. If we look at the signal in frequence, its periodic with 2PI. By Convolving with DELTA(w-PI/2) you only move it PI/2. But: x(t)h(t) <-> DELTA(w-2PI)*X(w)*H(w) as X(w) == X(w-n2PI) (as long as we are talking discrete signals) /Jesper
"b83503104" <b83503104@yahoo.com> wrote in message
news:73830d2d.0312240103.215027f6@posting.google.com...
> Given that x(t)*h(t) <-> X(w)H(w), > can we obtain x(t)h(t) <-> (1/2PI)X(w)*H(w) > by using only the duality property of Fourier transform? > THanks!
It's a "given" above that x(t)h(t) <-> (1/2PI)X(w)*H(w) - which seems perfectly OK. Can you arrive at x(t)h(t) <-> (1/2PI)X(w)*H(w) from x(t)*h(t) <-> X(w)H(w) by using only the duality property of the Fourier Transform? From: http://www.engineering.usu.edu/classes/ece/3640/lecture6/node6.html I get Time/Frequency Duality Property of the Fourier Transform as For f(t) <-> F(w) Then F(t) <-> 2*pi*f(-w) So: f(-w) <-> (1/2*pi)*F(t) [which uses the scaling property] substituting t for -w and -w for t: f(t) <-> (1/2*pi)*F(-w) Now, I'm not sure where to go from here but note that if f(t) is real then F(-w)=F(w) (it is an even real function of w). Did you want someone to do the proof for you? I don't know how you avoid the scaling property. Fred