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Correlation and Expected value

Started by aarthis May 30, 2007
Hi,

I have a doubt wrt Correlation and Expected value:

1. In many signal processing applications, there is a usage that the input
signal and noise are uncorrelated. This leads to E(Signal.Noise) = 0, that
is, expected value of the product of signal and noise is taken as zero.
How?

It is not given that Signal and Noise are independent. I am only aware of
the property of independent random variables that E(XY) = E(X).E(Y) and
that Independent means Uncorrelated and NOT otherwise.

But how is it derived that E(XY) = 0 in the case of Uncorrelated X and Y
?????

Anyone who is knowledgeable on this concept, Please explain. 

Thanks,
Padmi

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aarthis wrote:

> Hi, > > I have a doubt wrt Correlation and Expected value: > > 1. In many signal processing applications, there is a usage that the input > signal and noise are uncorrelated. This leads to E(Signal.Noise) = 0,
Vice versa. If the correlation of signal and noise == 0, then they say that the signal and noise are uncorrelated. Vladimir Vassilevsky DSP and Mixed Signal Design Consultant http://www.abvolt.com
"aarthis" <aarthi.sagi@gmail.com> writes:

> Hi, > > I have a doubt wrt Correlation and Expected value: > > 1. In many signal processing applications, there is a usage that the input > signal and noise are uncorrelated. This leads to E(Signal.Noise) = 0, that > is, expected value of the product of signal and noise is taken as zero. > How? > > It is not given that Signal and Noise are independent. I am only aware of > the property of independent random variables that E(XY) = E(X).E(Y) and > that Independent means Uncorrelated and NOT otherwise. > > But how is it derived that E(XY) = 0 in the case of Uncorrelated X and Y > ?????
It isn't derived, because it isn't true in general. If X and Y are uncorrelated, then, by definition, E[XY] = E[X]E[Y]. So if X and Y are uncorrelated, then the only way E[XY] = 0 is if E[X] = 0 or E[Y] = 0 (since the reals are an integral domain). Usually, in communications, the noise is assumed to be zero-mean, so if X is any random signal and N is the zero-mean noise, then E[XN] = 0. -- % Randy Yates % "Though you ride on the wheels of tomorrow, %% Fuquay-Varina, NC % you still wander the fields of your %%% 919-577-9882 % sorrow." %%%% <yates@ieee.org> % '21st Century Man', *Time*, ELO http://home.earthlink.net/~yatescr
On May 30, 7:21 pm, "aarthis" <aarthi.s...@gmail.com> wrote:
> Hi, > > I have a doubt wrt Correlation and Expected value: > > 1. In many signal processing applications, there is a usage that the input > signal and noise are uncorrelated. This leads to E{Signal*Noise} = 0, > that is, expected value of the product of signal and noise is taken > as zero. How? > > It is not given that Signal and Noise are independent. I am only aware of > the property of independent random variables that E{X*Y} = E{X}*E{Y}
that property is not the defining property of independent random variables. it the defining property of uncorrelated and a consequence of independence. the defining property of independent random variables has to do with either their conditional probability functions (like the p.d.f.) or their joint probability functions. p{XY} = p{X|Y}*p{Y} = p{Y|X}*p{X} where p{XY} means "the probability that both X and Y occur" and p{X|Y} means "the probability of X occuring given that Y has occured". anyway, if X and Y are independent r.v.'s, then knowing that Y occured tells you nothing additionally about how likely X will occur. (and vice-versa.) that means p{X|Y} = p{X} and that p{XY} = p{X} * p{Y} (you can switch around X and Y and get the same result with the same X and Y.)
> and that Independent means Uncorrelated and NOT otherwise.
that is true.
> But how is it derived that E{X*Y} = 0 in the case of Uncorrelated X and Y > ?????
it is *defined* to be that E{X*Y} = E{X}*E{Y} means that X and Y are uncorrelated (i am allowing for the possibility that X and/or Y have a DC component or non-zero mean). if the mean of either X or Y is zero and they are uncorrelated, then E{X*Y} = 0. now, maybe the question is: how is it that independent random variables are always uncorrelated? or what is a situation where two r.v.'s are not correlated but still dependent (as a counter example to any claim that these two conditions are the same)? dunno but i speculate as to what the question is. r b-j
Hi Yates, 
Thank you very much. Your reply cleared my doubts. It was very simple yet
I couldn't see it. I forgot that the noise is assumed to be of zero mean.

Thank you. 

_____________________________________
Do you know a company who employs DSP engineers?  
Is it already listed at http://dsprelated.com/employers.php ?