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What am I missing normalizing a FIR filter?

Started by Brian Reinhold January 7, 2004
Fred,

It is small but it does make an importance difference in the filtered
signal.  If I don't subtract the mean the signal gets a DC component (which
generates no sound but it is a pain as the graph of it can shift off the
screen...I am doing this from a sound card on a PC in Windows). I don't know
what kind of effect choosing the limits of the filter to be zeros (or not)
has. But I guess it isn't much, because once I subtract the mean the zeros
at the terminous of the filter are no longer zero!

The filter looks pretty much like a sinc(x) function with a few extra
wiggles.

Brian


"Fred Marshall" <fmarshallx@remove_the_x.acm.org> wrote in message
news:gb2dncYkk_DMXJzd4p2dnA@centurytel.net...
> > "Fred Marshall" <fmarshallx@remove_the_x.acm.org> wrote in message > news:_L6dnSpEcJxclpzdRVn-hw@centurytel.net... > > > > Brian, > > I want to modify this one thing that I said: > > > The continuous, infinite impulse response is then sampled and truncated. > > Just to be sure the stopband at f=0 has zero response, the very small
mean
> > of the truncated filter is then subtracted from each filter coefficient > > divided by the length of the filter -> i.e. subtracting mean/N. > > It would have been correct to say "subtracting the mean" if the objective > was to set the response at f=0 identically to zero. > > However, I think this is an unusual thing to to and isn't guaranteed to
work
> in the general case. > What if the filter unit sample response is 1 1 1 ? Then the mean is 1 and > subtracting the mean yields all zero coefficients. I rather think that
the
> response at f=0 is the same sort of thing as the response at any other > stopband frequency. So, you just accept it along with all the other > non-zero responses in the stop band and don't subtract the mean. In the > case you have, it probably doesn't hurt either - the "correction" should
be
> pretty small. > > Fred > >